The debased art and tastes of our present society are not a function of capitalism, but are a function of the irrational philosophies taught in many of our universities, that glorifies anti-art.
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Does capitalism allow a man to indulge in debased tastes?
Of course, capitalism does allow a man to indulge in debased tastes — but only by wasting his own money and not that of others, by prohibiting a man from forcing others to view or support his tastes, if they do not voluntarily wish to of their own free-will. And neither may he use the powers of the state to force others to subsidize his debased tastes either (as much bad art is paid for today).
